fj1200 Posted October 16, 2008 Share Posted October 16, 2008 I have a similar question to Andy17 below. I'm fairly new to javascript. I have a number of SQL Server-driven php pages, but need a new set. I have 2 different sql queries dependent on a radio button selection to determine if a job being looked at is running or pre-completed - the data comes out of different tables and will populate a drop-down list. The form is the same whichever dataset is used. Radio buttons work fine, but I can't get the value passed to a query. Last part of the radio buttons: } if (chosen == "Running") { $JOBTYPE = 1 } else { $JOBTYPE = 0 } } The php-bit is: If ($JOBTYPE == "0") $JOBQRY = ($jobselect0); If ($JOBTYPE == "1") $JOBQRY = ($jobselect1); while($nt=mssql_fetch_array($JOBQRY)) { echo "<option value= $nt[JOB_NAME]"."$nt[JOB_DESCRIPTION]> $nt[JOB_DESCRIPTION]</option>"; } echo "</select>"; Does javascript get upset if I use a $ in a variable? If I don't php won't see it. Link to comment https://forums.phpfreaks.com/topic/128695-change-db-query-depending-on-radio-button/ Share on other sites More sharing options...
RichardRotterdam Posted October 16, 2008 Share Posted October 16, 2008 just to be sure I need to ask you. you do know that php is serverside(runs on the server computer) and javascript is clientside(runs in browser) right? so this line in your code If ($JOBTYPE == "0") $JOBQRY = ($jobselect0); this will simply put $JOBTYPE in your javascript and not a usable value (off topic but the If should be with undercaps if) if you would write If (<?php echo $JOBTYPE ?>== "0") <?php echo $JOBQRY ?> = (<?php echo$jobselect0 ?>); that would be different Link to comment https://forums.phpfreaks.com/topic/128695-change-db-query-depending-on-radio-button/#findComment-667026 Share on other sites More sharing options...
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